Latest Hindi Banking jobs   »   English Language Quiz for IBPS 2020...

English Language Quiz for IBPS 2020 Mains Exams- 14 December, 2020 | Miscellaneous

English Language Quiz for IBPS 2020 Mains Exams- 14 December, 2020 | Miscellaneous | Latest Hindi Banking jobs_3.1

 Directions (1-5): Each of the following
questions has a paragraph from which one sentence has been deleted. From the
given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most
appropriate way.

Q1. Unchecked and unfiltered,
screen-time can be dangerous for kids. It has clear health implications, in
that it can affect sleep, or prevent kids from engaging in physical activity,
thereby contributing to India’s rising childhood obesity rates.
________________________________. And studies have shown that young children
who are screen users exhibit higher rates of aggression. Online apps and games,
which are created with the specific intent to attract and hook their users, are
particularly addictive for kids.

(a)It can exacerbate mental health
issues, and perpetuate social isolation.

(b)Context is about how they’re engaging
with what they’re watching.

(c)Devices, alone, are not going to
teach our children empathy.

(d)We are lucky to live in a time when
we have these tools, now we just have to learn how to use them.

(e)Technology is vital to kids’ future
achievement and a necessary part of their education.

Q2. The Odiyas drew first, but the taste
of defeat hangs heavy as lead on Odisha’s palate. In 2014, Jagannath scholar
Asit Mohanty had submitted a 100-page report to the state government stating
that the rosogolla was cited in the Odiya Ramayana of Balaram Das and had been
offered to the state’s gods six centuries ago.
__________________________________________________. Had they not proselytised
the rosogolla the world over? They have literally weaponised it — along with
guns, knives and explosives, notices in Kolkata’s airport explicitly ban
rosogollas from baggage.

 (a)And anyway, squabbling over
rosogollas beats fighting over beef.

(b)Banglar rosogolla belongs in a mixed
bag.

(c)The Bengalis, with whom the sweet is
associated as closely as Chianti is with the Italians, were outraged at being
accused of filching it later.

(d)Led by its chief minister, West
Bengal is celebrating its equivalent of the return of the Kohinoor diamond or
the Elgin Marbles.

(e)However, it is noteworthy that the GI
is in the name of one state’s product.

Q3. Italian football, though, is far
from dead. History shows that they recover fast. Ask Pele. By the time he
played his last World Cup, in 1970, they had recovered briskly enough to reach
the finals, and the Brazilian maestro and his colleagues had to be at their
most destructive best to beat them. _______________________________________. As
Gianluigi Buffon, who drew the curtains on his glittering 20-year-old career,
said, tears rolling down his cheeks, “the next generation of Italian players
can turn this catastrophe around.”

 (a)It’s a storm that has been brewing
for several years.

(b)In another 12 years, they won the
World Cup, beating en route what is deemed to be the best Brazilian team to
have never won a World Cup.

(c)But the best of Italian teams can
gloss over such deficiencies with their sheer will, allied with the tactical
brilliance of their coaches.

(d)Thus the utter disbelief of watching
the World Cup in Russia without the Azzurri, the famed catenaccio artistes in
blue, the blue-eyed alpha males who suddenly turn on their game astride the
biggest stage.

(e)Back in Italy, it’s apocalypse.

 

Q4. To do this successfully, the
leadership may have to prepare their personnel and create fertile ground for
the cross-department collaboration necessary to embrace and implement the
change. Continuous organizational learning and renewal is one of the
elements—along with human resources, strategic choices, efficiency of
implementation and effective leadership—essential for an organization to become
high performing in an overall sense.
____________________________________________

 (a)Also, there is incentivization for
the employees to take up external certification programmes to improve their
skills and knowledge.

(b)As such, HBR aptly termed it the
“great training robbery”.

(c)American corporates spent $356
billion in 2015 on training their employees, but only one in four of them
observed any salutary impact on the organization performance.

(d)After all, those who sweat more in
training, bleed less in combat.

(e)The management must necessarily
utilize the feedback to draw up a training strategy which is in line with
corporate goals and values.

 

Q5. The legislature, the army, the
judiciary and the media are important structures of the nation. The first sets
the rules, the second defends the state, the third determines what is right and
what’s wrong, and the fourth blows the whistle when things go wrong. They have
their roles and boundaries. _______________________________________________

 (a)Institutions are strengthened or weakened
depending on how the individuals temporarily in charge of the institutions act.

(b)Political demagogues have often used
language that dehumanizes the opponent to undermine them.

(c)In democracies, the army should be
visible sparingly—at parades, and only occasionally, to help with emergency
disaster relief, and heard from even less.

(d)There is another guardian, the media,
which can hold all these institutions accountable.

(e)All it needs is popular will.

Direction (6): There are four sentences given in the following question. Find the
sentence(s) which is/are grammatically correct and mark your answer choosing
the best possible alternative among the five options given below each question.
If all sentences are correct, choose (e) as your answer.

Q6. (I)The GST Council, at its 23rd
meeting in Guwahati last week announced major GST rate cuts by shifting 177
items—ranging from shaving creams to wristwatches—from the highest slab of 28%
to the 18% slab.

(II)The government has procured 2
million tonnes of pulses by ensuring minimum support price or market rates,
whichever is higher, directly from the farmers and this has been the highest
ever procurement of pulses.

(III)Globally, firms across industries
are cutting their spending on legacy work such as application maintenance, and
ploughing the savings on newer projects into areas such as data analytics and
cyber security solutions.

(IV)TCS, India’s largest software services
firm, maintains that it is the company’s DNA to build technologies and groom
leaders to take against senior roles, even if implementing this strategy means
the company has to sacrifice some growth in the short term.

(a)Only (I) is correct

(b)Only (IV) is correct

(c)Both (I) and (II) are correct

(d)Only (I), (II) and (III) are correct

(e)All are correct

Direction (7): The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three
parts which contain grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the
sentence, as specified in bold in each part. If there is an error in any part
of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the
three options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically
correct. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any
correction, choose (e), i.e., “No correction required” as your answer.

Q7. In
the biggest revamp of the GST tax structure
, the GST Council last week
removed 178 items (I)/from the highest 28 per cent category
while cutting the tax on all restaurants
outside starred-hotels (II)/to 5 per cent but withdrawing input credit
facility for them. (III)

(I)To revamp the biggest GST tax
structure

(II)by cutting the tax from all
restaurants

(III)facilities to them

(a)Only (I)

(b)Only (III)

(c)Both (I) and (III)

(d)All (I), (II) and (III)

(e)No correction required

 Direction (8): In the question given below, there are four sentences. Choose the
sentence which is grammatically incorrect as your answer. If all the given
sentences are grammatically correct and do not require any correction, choose
(e) i.e. “All are correct” as your answer.

Q8. (a)Owing to the rampant change in
the lifestyle of the majority of Indian populace, it is vital to understand
lifestyle diseases, including and especially diabetes.

(b)The Union Cabinet on Thursday
approved setting up of the anti-profiteering authority under the Goods and
Services Tax (GST) regime to be composed of a chairman and four technical
members.

(c)Less than half of Indian households
has access to a proper toilet and as a consequence many people defecate in public
spaces.

(d)Once a regional breadbasket, Zimbabwe
saw its economy collapse after the seizure of white-owned farms in the early
2000s, followed by runaway money-printing that catapulted inflation to 500
billion percent in 2008.

(e)All are correct.

Direction (9): There are three sentences given in the following question. Find the
sentence(s) which is/are grammatically correct and mark your answer choosing
the best possible alternative among the five options given below each question.
If all the sentences are correct, choose (e) as your answer.

Q9. (I)In recent months, Mr Modi’s Clean
India programme to provide access to sanitation has received international
attention and even praise from people like Bill Gates who has commended the
fact that the Modi government has said that the problem will not exist by the
year 2019.

(II)As researchers Diane Coffey and Dean
Spear point out in their recently released book Where India Goes, the issue of
why most Indians do not use toilets was less than a problem of the
unavailability of proper toilets and more to with having social behaviour and
religious beliefs.

(III)If Pakistanis want a better future
for their children, if they want to ensure that so many of them do not perish
because of entirely preventable illnesses, this attitude of stubborn denial
will have to change.

(a)Only (II) is correct

(b)Both (I) and (III) are correct

(c)Both (I) and (II) are correct

(d)Both (II) and (III) are correct

(e)All are correct

 

Direction (10): Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph and
then answer the questions that follow
.

Q10. If the sentence (C), “The multiple
terror attacks that killed at least 200 people in Afghanistan last week has set
alarm bells ringing in Kabul.” is the first sentence of the paragraph, then
what is the sequence of other sentences after rearrangement?

(A)That the attacks occurred at a time
when the United States was putting to work its new strategy to stabilise
Afghanistan underscores the resolve of the militants to stay the course of
insurgency.

(B)On Friday, bombings in two Shia
mosques killed more than 80 people, mostly Shias, for which the Islamic State
has claimed responsibility.

(C)The multiple terror attacks that
killed at least 200 people in Afghanistan last week has set alarm bells ringing
in Kabul.

(D)If the government faced only one
major armed insurgency till a couple of years ago, now it has to fight on many
fronts.

(E)Most of these attacks were carried
out by the Taliban.

(F)The security situation in Afghanistan
is increasingly worsening.

(a)FBEDA

(b)AEBDF

(c)DABEF

(d)ADFEB

(e)AEBFD

Direction
(11-15):Below in each questions some sentences are given,  find the sentence which is not really
contributing to the main theme and OUT of the passage or find the odd
sentence  and rearrange the remaining
sentences to make a coherent paragraph.

 

Q11.

A. This has proven a boon for the
aerospace industry. Globally, in the next two decades, more than 41,000
aircraft are expected to be produced, with a value of over $6.1 trillion.

B. Across the globe, rising wealth
and the advent of discount airlines have made air travel more of a mass
proposition than ever before.

C. This bounty will flow not only to
plane manufacturers but also to a range of supporting parts and service
suppliers.

D.A monthly cap of Rs10,000 for each
means users may only use them for such use cases as utilities, telephone bills
and so forth.

E. At the same time, the boom in
electronic and mobile commerce has increased air-freight volumes as consumers
order goods across borders, demanding speedy delivery.

(a) BCEA

(b) DBCA

(c) BEAC

(d) EADC

(e) EABC

Q12.

A. These are the electrodes that
record the impulses of individual cells, ideally simultaneously with lots of
others, in order to try to work out how networks of cells process information.

B. Until the invention of the
microscope, microbiology did not exist. Neuroscience, too, has advanced
recently on the back of some powerful tools, particularly techniques for
scanning whole brains.

C. But the devices that look at the
nitty-gritty of how nerve cells themselves work are still Heath-Robinson
affairs.

D. For example, since the 2016
edition, the indicator on ease of getting electricity began to include
indicators on reliability of supply, price of electricity, and transparency of
tariffs.

E. Science is a mixture of the
intellectual and the practical. And the practical requires tools. Until the
invention of the telescope, astronomy had been stuck in a rut for millennia.

(a) 
BCDA

(b) 
CAED

(c) 
DBCA

(d) 
BACD

(e) 
EBCA

Q13.

A. He speculated that both types of
sounds were important for sending signals to others, but was unsure If this was
true. In the years that have passed since his death, ornithologists have proved
time and again that birds’ songs, squawks and shrieks are used for sending
signals to their kin, their rivals and sometimes even their predators.

B. Such quick fixes may even be
effective, but will only remain under the glare of the media.

C. In “The Descent of Man and
Selection in Relation to Sex” he devoted equal space to both the sorts of
sounds that emerge from birds’ beaks and the more percussive noises that they
make with other parts of their bodies, such as their feet and feathers.

D. In contrast, their more
percussive sounds have received almost no attention at all . A study published
in Current Biology by Trevor Murray at the Australian National University, in
Canberra, however, suggests that is a mistake. At least one bird creates a
specific, audible warning with the flapping of its wings.

E. 
CHARLES DARWIN was fascinated by bird communication.

(a) DCAB

(b) CABD

(c) ECAD

(d) ECAB

(e) CAED

 

Q14.

 A. They have also taken to flirting
with deep science to achieve a part of this vision.

B. The common refrain is that IT
services firms are not original enough, and seek to profit only on the deep
technology advancements made by other firms, usually based in Silicon Valley.

C. However, to be fair, Infosys Ltd
and some of the other firms in this category such as Wipro Ltd and Tata
Consultancy Services Ltd (TCS) have actually been hard at work to retool their
operations to allow for the creation of new technology “products” such that
these become an increasingly important part of their eventual go-to-market
propositions.

D. Information technology (IT)
services providers are often faulted for not having any “original” product
ideas.

E. Meanwhile, private industry can’t
justify investment in expensive research that doesn’t yet have clear commercial
potential.

(a) DBAC

(b) DBCA

(c) EDCB

(d) BCEA

(e) BDEC

Q15.

A. Another part of the flawed start
can be explained by poor incentive design.

B. The overdue transition to the new
goods and services tax (GST) has started off on the wrong foot.

C. One part of the flawed start can
be explained by political realities. The complicated federal bargaining in the
GST council led to a system of five tax rates, along with a special rate for
gold, as well as cesses that go against the very basic principles of
value-added taxation.

D. The three main problems have been
the complicated tax structure that can create distortions, onerous compliance
procedures that have created working capital stress in many smaller companies,
and technical glitches in the GST network.

E. This widened the trade deficit to
$14.01 billion, the highest level since $14.08 billion in May 2017.

(a) BCAD

(b) ECBA

(c) DABC

(d) BDCA

(e) EABD


 SOLUTIONS: 


S1. Ans. (a)

Sol. The given paragraph is about the
impact of excess use of screen or technology on kids these days. Read the
paragraph carefully, it can be easily viewed that among the given options, only
the sentence (a) forms the correct substitution to the provided blank space.
Other options do not go with the theme of the paragraph. They alter the meaning
of the paragraph. Hence (a) is the correct choice.  

 

S2. Ans. (c)

Sol. Read the paragraph carefully, it is
about the most famous sweet of West Bengal “rosogolla” and the conflicting
scene related to it. Among the given options, only sentence (c) fits perfectly
into the blank space as it follows the sentence prior to the space as well as
the one following it. It brings the continuity into the meaning of the
paragraph. Other options are not relevant enough to bring about a similar
meaning to the paragraph. Hence (c) is the correct choice.

 

S3. Ans. (b)

Sol. The given paragraph is about
Italy’s poor show in the game of football and its failure to qualify for
Football World Cup. There is an indication in the sentence prior to the blank
space that talks about the history of Brazilian football team of 1970s. It
clearly states that among the given options, only sentence (b) fits perfectly
into the space provided as it follows the other sentences in a proper order to
bring out an appropriate meaning to the paragraph. Other options are irrelevant
to this particular paragraph. Hence (b) is the correct choice.   

 

S4. Ans. (d)

Sol. The paragraph is about the
organizational learning and training motives along with the importance of work
culture associated with it. Read the paragraph carefully, among the given
options, there is only sentence (d) which finds some connection with the
paragraph and at the same time it concludes the paragraph in the best manner,
adding meaning to it. Other options are not feasible enough to make the
paragraph complete and conclusive. Hence (d) is the correct choice.

 

S5. Ans. (a)

Sol. The paragraph is all about
strengthening India’s institutions which has been nicely explained here. Read
the paragraph carefully, it can be easily drawn that the only sentence that
follows the pattern of the theme of the paragraph is (a). It adds meaning to
the paragraph and at the same time it concludes the paragraph in the most
evident way. Other options, though related to the same subject, are not
relevant enough to be the part of this particular paragraph. Hence (a) is the
correct choice.  

  

S6. Ans. (d)

Sol. All the sentences, except (IV), are
grammatically correct. In the case of sentence (IV), the phrasal verb “take
against
” should be replaced by “take up” to bring out a meaningful
sentence. The phrasal verb “take against” means begin to dislike
(someone), often for no strong or obvious reason, which is irrelevant in the
context of the meaning of the sentence. The phrasal verb “take up” means accept an
offer or challenge, which adds meaning to the sentence. Thus except (IV), all
other sentences are grammatically correct. Hence option (d) is the correct
choice.

 

S7. Ans. (e)

Sol. The sentence is grammatically
correct which means that all the three bold parts in the sentence do not
require any replacement or correction. Hence option (e) is the correct choice.

 

S8. Ans. (c)

Sol. There is a grammatical error in the
sentence (c), the singular verb “has” should be replaced by its
plural “have” as the subject it signifies is in plural form [Less than half of Indian households].
The other sentences are grammatically correct. Hence option (c) is the correct
choice.

 

S9. Ans. (b)

Sol. There is an error in the sentence
structure of sentence (II), the later part of the sentence “was
less than a problem of the unavailability of proper toilets and more to with
having social behaviour and religious beliefs
” should be replaced by “is
less a problem of the unavailability of proper toilets and more to do with
social behaviour and religious beliefs
” to make the sentence both
logically and contextually correct. Moreover, it is to be noted that the
sentence is in Present Tense, so the use of the verb “was” is incorrect. The
correct structure of the sentence should be – “As researchers Diane Coffey and
Dean Spear point out in their recently released book Where India Goes, the
issue of why most Indians do not use toilets is less a problem of the
unavailability of proper toilets and more to do with social behaviour and
religious beliefs.
”, which is both grammatically and meaningfully
correct. The other two sentences are grammatically correct and do not require
any correction. Hence option (b) is the correct choice.

 

 

S10. Ans. (e)

Sol. If (C) is the first sentence, the
correct sequence of other sentences after rearrangement should be AEBFD. The first two sentences (C) and
(A) make a clear connection with each other [“multiple terror attacks” in the first case can be connected with “that the attacks occurred at” in the
second case]. Similarly, the sentence (E) follows the sentence (A). The
sentence (D) clearly suggests that it should be the concluding sentence. Thus
sentences in the sequence of CAEBFD
form a coherent paragraph which is about the multiple terror attacks in
Afghanistan that happened recently. Hence option (e) is the correct choice.

 

  S11. Ans.(c)

Sol. Correct Choice is option
(c). Statement B is most likely the starting sentence. Now that we know
statement B is the starting statement A and C gets eliminated as second
sentence. Statement E follows B, which is then followed by A and C.

Now we can see Sentence D has no
correlation with aerospace industry, and its business, We can rule out Sentence
D.

 

S12. Ans.(e)

Sol. Correct Choice is option
(e). Statement B logically initiate the discussion, followed by B, which
further elaborates Idea introduced in E. Subsequently A explains C. Hence EBCA
is the apt choice.

Hence we can rule out Option D as
it is not contributing to provide coherent meaning.

 

S13. Ans.(c)

Sol. Correct Choice is option
(c). Statement E starts the discussion, followed by C , ‘He’ is the hint . Here
‘He’ refers to  CHARLES DARWIN. Then
comes statement A, which elaborates “types of sounds”, which is
referred in statement C. Statement D is the concluding statement. B is ruled
out as it is out of context.

 

S14. Ans.(b)

Sol.  Correct Choice is option (b).

Statement D initiates the
discussion, followed by B and C . Statement A concludes the statement.

Statement E is out of context.

 

S15. Ans.(d)

Sol. Correct Choice is option (d)
.Statement E is out of context.

Correct choice is BDCA.

 

  

Practice with Crash Course and Online Test Series for IBPS Mains 2020:

Click Here to Register for Bank Exams 2020 Preparation Material

English Language Quiz for IBPS 2020 Mains Exams- 14 December, 2020 | Miscellaneous | Latest Hindi Banking jobs_4.1 

English Language Quiz for IBPS 2020 Mains Exams- 14 December, 2020 | Miscellaneous | Latest Hindi Banking jobs_5.1