English Language Quiz for IBPS 2020 Mains Exams- 21 December, 2020 | Miscellaneous

Directions (1-5): Rearrange the
following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) ,(E), (F)and (G) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given
below.

A.
If it was a deeply distressing or disturbing time in your life, you are
allowed to have feelings about it.

B. This is true for most situations. There
is almost always something worse that could have happened.

C. The point is not how easy you got off,
it is how the situation impacted you. How it impacted your life and the lives
of your loved ones. How it still remains with you.

D. People do not want to take on the label
because it is embarrassing or because they think, “Others have had it
worse, who am I to complain?

E. Many people brush away the wounds of
their past by saying, “It could have been worse.”

F. It looks different for different people.
It impacts different people differently.

G. Many people want to downplay the impact
that a traumatic event has had on them.

Q1.
Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D (e)E

Q2 . Which of the following would be the
LAST (SEVENTH) sentence after rearrangement?

(a)C (b)B (c)
A (d)D (e)E

Q3.
Which of the following would be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b)
C (c) B (d) G (e) F

Q4.
Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) G

Q5.Which of the following would be the
THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) F (d) D (e) E

Directions (6-10): Sentences given in
each question, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence
is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from
amongst the five choices given to construct a paragraph.

Q6. (i) The necessity for regional
integration in South Asia is underlined by the very history of the last 45
years since the liquidation of the British Empire in this part of the world.

A. After the partition of the Indian
Subcontinent, Pakistan was formed in that very area which the imperial powers
had always marked out as the potential base for operations against the Russian
power in Central Asia.

B. Because of the disunity and ill-will
among the South Asian neighbours, particularly India and Pakistan, the great
powers from outside the area could meddle into their affairs and thereby keep
neighbours apart.

C. It needs to be added that it was the
bountiful supply of sophisticated arms that emboldened Pakistan to go for war
like bellicosity towards India.

D. As a part of the Cold War strategy of
the U.S., Pakistan was sucked into Washington’s military alliance spreading
over the years.

(iv) Internally too, it was the massive
induction of American arms into Pakistan which empowered the military junta of
that country to stuff out the civilian government and destroy democracy in
Pakistan.

(a) ACBD

(b) ABDC

(d) DCAB

(e) ABCD

Q7. (i) Commercial energy consumption shows
an increasing trend and poses a major challenge for the future.

A. The demand for petroleum during 1996-97
and 2006-07 is anticipated to be 81 million tonnes and 125 million tonnes
respectively.

B. According to the projections of the 14th
Power Survey Committee Report, the electricity generation requirement from
utilities will be about 415 billion units by 1996-97 and 824 billion units by
2006-07.

C. The production of coal should reach 303
million tonnes by 1996-97 to achieve Plan targets and 460 million tonnes by
2006-07.

D. The demand for petroleum products has
already outstripped indigenous production.

(vi) Electricity is going to play a major
role in the development of infrastructural facilities.

(a) DACB

(b) CADB

(d) ABCD

(e) DCBA

Q8. (i) Count Rumford is perhaps best known
for his observations on the nature of heat.

A. He undertook several experiments in
order to test the theories of the origin of frictional heat.

B. According to the calorists, the heat was
produced by the “caloric” squeezed out of the chips in the process of
separating them from the larger pieces of metal.

C. Lavoisier had introduced the term
“caloric” for the weightless substance heat, and had included it
among the chemical elements along with carbon, nitrogen and oxygen.

D. In the ammunitions factory in Munich,
Rumford noticed that a considerable degree of heat developed in a brass gun
while it was being bored.

(vi) Rumford could not believe that the
amount of heat generated could have come from the small amount of dust created.

(a) ADCB

(b) CBDA

(d) CDAB

(e) DCBA

Q9. (i) The death of cinema has been predicted
annually.

A. It hasn’t happened.

B. It was said that the television would
kill it off and indeed audiences plummeted, reaching a low in 1984.

C. Film has enjoyed a renaissance, and
audiences are roughly double of what they were a decade ago.

D. Then the home computer became the
projected nemesis followed by satellite television.

(vi) Why? Probably because even in the most
atomised of societies, we human beings feel the need to share our fantasies and
our excitement.

(a) CADB

(b) BDAC

(d) DABC

(e) ABCD

Q10. (i) The idea of sea-floor spreading
preceded the theory of plate tectonics.

A. The hypothesis was soon substantiated by
the discovery that periodic reversals of the earth’s magnetic field are
recorded in the oceanic crust.

B. In its original version, it described
the creation and destruction of the ocean floor, but it did not specify
rigidity.

C. An explanation of this process devised
by F. J. Vine and D. H. Mattews of Princeton is now generally accepted.

D. The sea-floor spreading hypothesis was
formulated chiefly by Harry H. Hess of Princeton University in the early 1960s.

(vi) As magma rises under the mid-ocean
ridge, ferromagnetic minerals in the magma become magnetised in the direction
of the geomagnetic field.

(a) DCBA

(b) ABDC

(d) DBAC

(e) ABCD

Directions (11-15):Each of the following
questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From
the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most
appropriate way. If none implies, choose (e) as your answer.

Q11. Full engagement begins with feeling
eager to get to work in the morning, equally happy to return home in the
evening and capable of setting clear boundaries between the two. It means being
able to immerse yourself in the mission you are on, whether that is grappling
with a creative challenge at work, managing a group of people on a project,
spending time with loved ones or simply having fun.

(a) However, full engagement entails
compromising with or ignoring some less important work.

(b) Full engagement implies a fundamental
shift in the way we live our lives.

(d) This requires a relentless ooze of
energy for not just the whole day but the whole life.

(e) None of these.

Q12. To some people, strategy is a
position, namely the locating of particular products in particular markets. To
others, strategy is a perspective, namely an organisation’s fundamental way of
doing things. The problem is that eventually situations change – environments
destabilize, niches disappear, and opportunities open up. Then all that is
constructive about an established strategy becomes a liability.

(a) That is why, even though the concept of
strategy is rooted in stability, so much of the study of strategy focuses on
change.

(b) And in such a situation, adapting
strategy to the conditions changing at dizzying rates becomes all the more
difficult.

(d) Thus, a strategy holds good provided
things remain in status quo.

(e) None of these.

Q13. If you want to lead people, you need
to know them: their unique strengths, aspirations, and patterns of behaviour.
If you want to manage work, you need to see what people are doing and
understand how it fits into the context of the group’s mission. Regular
one-on-one help create a stable relationship between managers and team members,
and help you learn about problems early.

(a) If problems snowball relations once
regarded stable, sever.

(b) Only such an intimate interpersonal
interaction helps tide over a problem.

(d) Learning about problems early leads to
early solutions instead of crisis management.

(e) None of these.

Q14. The reforms have made it possible for
many more lndians to dream of a better life. But they are so busy chasing this
eminently achievable goal that they are simply not inclined to participate in
the political process. Most of the beneficiaries of the reforms probably don’t
vote, and no one has managed to channel them into a vocal lobby.

(a) Elections results are, thus, not
representative of all sections of eligible voters.

(b) Political obligations and personal
dreams seem antithetical to each other.

(d) People have realized that the political
tantrum called election can never help fulfill their dreams.

(e) None of these.

Q15. Benchmarking certainly has its
virtues. Comparing production time or the cost of a standard process to that of
peer companies can yield important insights about your own efficiencies – and
ultimately, competitiveness. But bench-marking also has its limits. When you
ignore the differentiated output that internal support or shared services
groups provide, such straight-across cost or numeric comparisons become
meaningless. Today’s successful support unit earns its keep by being a trusted
partner to the business units it serves.

(a) Thus, all so-called virtues of
benchmarking turn out to be professed rather than actualized.

(b) So, comparing its results to those in a
benchmarking survey is counterproductive.

(d) Thus, the parameters of benchmarking
are, though postulated scientifically, are illusory.

(e) None of these.

SOLUTIONS:

S1. Ans.(d)