IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains English Quiz 4th of October 2019

IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains English Quiz

Directions (1-5): The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into five parts which contain grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence. The portion specified in bold suggests that it is grammatically correct and does not require any correction. If there is an error in rest part of the sentence, find the correct alternative among the five options which indicates the part(s) of the sentence containing grammatical error(s). If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (e), i.e., “No error” as your answer.
Q1. When victims understand (I)/ that a person’s bizarre beliefs (II)/ may actually acquit them (III)/ from the crime it is another (IV)/ reason not to trust the justice system. (V)
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Only (V)
(c) Both (I) and (V)
(d) only (IV)
(e) No error
S1. Ans. (d)
Sol. Among all the given parts of the sentence, the error lies in part (IV) of it. It is to be noticed that the verb ‘acquit’ which means free (someone) from a criminal charge by a verdict of not guilty, always takes the preposition ‘of’ to express “acquit a person of all charges” while ‘in’ is used to express “acquit a person in a crime”. Since, all the other parts of the sentence are correct, option (d) is the most suitable answer choice.

Q2. The Board of Directors govern (I)/ the Brainerd Lakes Area Community Foundation, conduct (II)/ development activities, approve (III)/grant decisions and works to engage people, (IV)/ connect resources and build community. (V)
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (I), (II) and (III)
(d) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
(e) No error
S2. Ans. (c)
Sol. The error lies in parts (I), (II) and (III) of the sentence. It is to be noted that the ‘board of directors’ is a group of people which fits into the category of noun if the people in them is considered as a unit, or plural if they are considered as individuals. Since, here ‘board of directors’ are considered as a single body, the verb associated to it should also be in its singular form, therefore the verbs ‘govern’, ‘conduct’, ‘approve’ should be replaced by ‘governs’, ‘conducts’ and ‘approves’ to make the sentence grammatically correct. Since, part (IV) is already grammatically correct, option (c) becomes the most viable answer choice.

Q3. The junior is one of hundreds of (I)/ students in the area who have to find (II)/ somewhere to store his belongings and somewhere to sleep (III)/ during the short gap within leases (IV)/ ending late July and starting 1 Aug. (V)
(a) Both (II) and (IV)
(b) Only (V)
(c) Both (I) and (V)
(d) only (I)
(e) No error
S3. Ans. (a)
Sol. Among the given parts of the sentence, part (II) and (IV) contain grammatical errors in them. It is to be noted that the noun or a pronoun used after the phrase “one of” is always in the plural form (as we are talking of one person/place/thing out of many). However, the helping verb will always be in the singular form, as the helping verb agrees with “one of” and not with the plural noun in the sentence. Moreover, in part (IV) ‘within’ should be replaced by ‘between’ as ‘within’ means inside (something) while ‘between’ is used to express ‘in the period separating (two points in time)’. Since, the other parts are correct, option (a) is the most feasible answer choice.

Q4. Properties with a view of the sea (I)/ can command prices up to 32 per cent (II)/ higher than a similar (III)/ property with no sea view, (IV)/ a study has found. (V)
(a) Both (II) and (IV)
(b) Only (V)
(c) Both (I) and (V)
(d) only (I)
(e) No error
S4. Ans. (e)
Sol. All the parts of the given sentence are grammatically correct and contextually meaningful therefore, they do not require any corrections. Hence, option (e) is the most feasible answer choice.

Q5. We have not been (I)/ given a chance to compete (II)/ in spite of we (III)/ can supply the (IV)/ best cost-effective solution. (V)
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (I) and (V)
(d) only (I)
(e) No error
S5. Ans. (b)
Sol. Part (III) of the sentence contains a grammatical error. To make the sentence grammatically correct, replace the phrase “in spite of” with “in spite of the fact that”. It is to be noted that “in spite of something” is always followed by a noun or a noun equivalent, whereas, “in spite of the fact that” is followed by Clause (subject + Verb). E.g. In spite of his best efforts, he failed; In spite of the fact that he worked very hard, he failed. All the other parts of the sentence are in appropriate grammatical syntax. Hence, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.

Directions (6-10): Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which one sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.


Q6. A temple or any place of worship cannot claim a right to the deity who is being worshipped in that place, since the deity by definition is present to all at all other places. God is not an entity who can be privatized and put under the control of certain individuals or communities or some dominant males.
(__________________).Even rituals cannot be privatized and copyrighted since they are also done for god, a public being.
(a) And if god should not be privatized, education, water and air should also not be privatized.
(b) Temple is not a private space because of its dependence on the idea of god as the supreme ‘public entity’ has an important corollary.
(c) Equivalently, god really has no privacy, nor can any human claim ‘copyright’ over their gods.
(d) Thus, all the arguments about celibacy invoked in this context are attempts to impose concepts of the private on a public being.
(e) It will be useful to understand the implications of the claim that temples cannot be private places.
S6. Ans. (c)
Sol. Option (c) is the most appropriate choice. The paragraph talks about the privatization of God, the supreme entity. As the second line refers about how God cannot be controlled by certain individuals or communities or some dominant males , only option (c) fits as it mentions about how equivalently no human can claim copyright over their ‘gods’.

Q7. The government raised social expenditure through its employment guarantee scheme, which, together with a construction boom, raised wages in the informal sector. (______________________).The result: the growth in average wages for rural workers in 2013-14 was a huge 28% year-on-year. It refused to curtail subsidies, because it was scared of a backlash from the middle classes.
(a) Globalization proved to be the final nail in the coffin for the western working class.
(b) The contending classes are different, because organized labor forms a minuscule proportion of the working class in India.
(c) In terms of the conflict theory, the competing claims of various sections of the population were all accommodated by the government in a please-all policy.
(d) It increased minimum support prices for farmers.
(e) None of these.
S7. Ans. (d)
Sol. The sentence that must be filled in the given blank is option (d).This is so because the paragraph is referring about the social expenditure that was raised by the government which raised wages in the informal sector. To portray its aftermaths the only option that suits is option (d) , that is it increased minimum support prices(MSP) for farmers .All other options do not satisfy the given blank .Hence option (d) is the answer.

Q8. By making citizens liable for offering a bribe to a public servant, the anti-corruption law has been brought in line with the UN Convention Against Corruption. (________________).This exception kicks in only when the fact that one was forced to pay a bribe is reported to a law enforcement authority within seven days. The penal provision can empower people by allowing them to cite it to refuse to pay a bribe.
(a) Further, it may render them vulnerable to threats from unscrupulous public servants.
(b) The only exception to this rule is when one is forced to give a bribe.
(c) The most unacceptable change is the introduction of a prior approval norm to start an investigation.
(d) These should contain penal provisions as well as assure citizens of time bound services.
(e) Public servants need to be protected against unfair prosecution.
S8. Ans. (b)
Sol. Only option (b) fills the blank in the most appropriate way. As the next line after the blank mentions about the specific exception, we have to fill the blank with the exception that is referred. In option (b), the only exception to the rule of anti –corruption law is given that is, when one is forced to give a bribe. Hence option (b) is the answer.

Q9. (____________).The Great Depression discredited the idea that economies were basically self-correcting, and the following decades saw the development of Keynesian theory and the use of fiscal stimulus. The stagflation of the 1970s led to the development of real business cycle models, which saw recessions as the efficient working of the economy, and central bank meddling as likely only to cause inflation.
(a)The notion that economic booms cause busts, instead of being random unrelated events seems to have much more currency beyond the ivory tower than within it.
(b) There was immediately a flurry of activity, as economists hastened to shoehorn finance into their standard models.
(c) Macroeconomics tends to advance—or, at least, to change—one crisis at a time.
(d) When extrapolative expectations are combined with an inherently fragile financial system, a predictable cycle of booms and busts is the result.
(e) none of these.
S9. Ans. (c)
Sol. The most suitable option here is option (c).As the paragraph talks about macroeconomics, the branch of economics concerned with large-scale or general economic factors, such as interest rates and national productivity , which tend to advance ,this is the only statement among the given options which acts as an opener for the paragraph. The next line also supports the first line which talks about the economies which are basically self-correcting. Hence option (c) is the appropriate answer.

Q10. Duties are those actions which take one to one’s goal. Thus having a goal is crucial. The ideal action has a goal or destination. (_______________________). The entire focus is on the action, not the fruit. Like Arjuna , all one can see is the eye of the bird. Only the action exists. When all energy is thus directed to the action, the goal is achieved faster. And the journey is enjoyable!
(a) But when this goal becomes a craving, a longing, when it becomes a hook on which the happiness of life hinges, the fruit starts disturbing the action and life itself.
(b) To work with fruit makes one unhappy.
(c) To want something, to believe one will get it and then one will be happy is pure ignorance.
(d) The journey is anxious; the loss is heartbreaking.
(e) But once the action starts, the goal should not be allowed to disturb one’s concentration.
S10. Ans. (e)
Sol. The most appropriate answer here that fills the blank is option (e).This is so because the line before the blank talks about the action which has a goal or destination. So the next line must describe about how that action must be led to or in what way it must work and that is described by the statement (e) .That is , one’s concentration should not be diverted as it affects a goal ,once the action starts. Hence option (e) is the answer.

Directions (11-15): In each of the following questions five options are given, of which one word is most nearly the same or opposite in meaning to the given word in the question. Find the correct option having either same or opposite meaning


Q11. REPERCUSSION
(a) Reliant
(b) Consequence
(c) Impertinence
(d) Prompting
(e) Callous
S11. Ans. (b)
Sol. Option (b) is the correct choice.
Repercussion means an unintended consequence of an event or action, especially an unwelcome one hence consequence is the word which is most similar in meaning to this.
Callous means showing or having an insensitive and cruel disregard for others.
Prompting means the action of saying something to persuade, encourage, or remind someone to do or say something.
Impertinence means lack of respect; rudeness.

Q12. MASQUERADE
(a) Contentious
(b) Pretense
(c) Belligerent
(d) Arrogant
(e) Reminiscent
S12. Ans. (b)
Sol. Masquerade means a false show or pretence. Hence masquerade and pretense are similar in meaning.
Pretense means an attempt to make something that is not the case appear true.
Belligerent means a nation or person engaged in war or conflict, as recognized by international law.
Reminiscent means suggesting something by resemblance.

Q13. Wither
(a) Ingenious
(b) Gnawed
(c) Persistent
(d) Thrive
(e) Reverie
S13. Ans. (d)
Sol. Wither means (to cause) to become weak and dry and decay hence thrive which means (of a child, animal, or plant) grow or develop well or vigorously is the word most opposite in meaning to the given word.
Reverie means dreamy
Gnawed means bite at or nibble something persistently.
Persistent means continuing firmly or obstinately in an opinion or course of action in spite of difficulty or opposition.

Q14. REPROBATE
(a) Repudiate
(b) Strident
(c) Virtuous
(d) Flagrant
(e) Stoic
S14. Ans. (c)
Sol. Reprobate and virtuous are opposite in meaning hence option (c) is the correct choice for the given question.
Reprobate means an unprincipled person.
Virtuous means having or showing high moral standards.
Stoic means indifferent to pleasure or pain
Strident means harsh
Repudiate means to disown.
Flagrant means glaringly wrong

Q15.PUNITIVE
(a)Remote
(b)Quantity
(c)Denounce
(d)Disciplinary
(e)Separate
S15. Ans. (d)
Sol.
Punitive and Disciplinary are synonyms in meaning, hence option (d) are the correct answer choice for the given question.

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